We can be more ambitious with the beautiful and surprising Bonus Exercise 1 (Effective resistance II).
Once we prove that ρ:(x,y)↦Weff(x,y) is a distance. We can prove that ρα:(x,y)↦Wαeff(x,y) is a distance for all α∈(0,1].
For this, we need these typical exercises in Functional Analysis Courses:
1. For α∈(0,1] and x,y≥0 the function φ:x↦xα is not decreasing and (x+y)α≤xα+yα.
2. If d is a metric, then (ϕ∘d) is also a metric provided that ϕ is a non-decreasing mapping such that
ϕ(s+r)≤ϕ(s)+ϕ(r).
Best Regards,
Paco
Christian Seifert, 2022/11/15 15:20
Dear Paco,
Many thanks for the remark.
Best,
Christian
Ragon Ebker, 2022/11/07 17:29, 2022/11/07 17:32
Hello,
Regarding exercise 2a) a question came up.
Is “finite measure space” a typo for “finite measure set space” or are we talking about a possibly infinite set X?
Regards
Ragon
Marcel Schmidt, 2022/11/07 18:37
Dear Ragon,
this is a typo. It should read ‚…finite set measure space…‘. Infinite sets are considered from Lecture 3 onward.
Best regards, Marcel
Sascha Trostorff, 2022/11/03 20:33
Dear all,
is the graph in Exercise 2.4 assumed to be connected? Otherwise, I won't see, why Weff(x,y)<∞ for x,y∈X. Indeed, if we for instance assume that X consists of two elements and b=0, then Q(h)=0 for each h∈C(X) and hence, Weff(x,y)=∞ for the two distinct points in X.
Best regards
Sascha
Marcel Schmidt, 2022/11/04 09:14
Dear Sascha,
yes you have to assume connectedness of the graph. Otherwise Weff(x,y)=∞ whenever x and y belong to different connected components. To see this you can take h=1C, where C is the connected component of x. Then Q(h)=0 and if y is not in the connected component of x, then h(x)−h(y)=1.
In spirit the statements remain true also in the unconnected setting. The formula in (a) holds always if max is replaced by sup and W1/2eff is non-degenerate, symmetric and satisfies the triangle inequality but may take the value ∞.
Best, Marcel
EL-Houcine OUALI, 2022/11/02 15:23
Hello,
Thank you very much for this scond lecture.
Kai Jennissen, 2022/11/01 21:58
Dear all,
I do not really understand the definition of the heat kernel (1.28).
How does the definition e−tLf(x) fit to the map p:[0,∞)×X×X→[0,∞)?
e−tLf(x) looks to me like a map with domain [0,∞)×C(X)×X instead of [0,∞)×X×X
What am I missing?
Furthermore, how is pt defined?
Best, Kai
Brian Voß, 2022/11/01 22:39
Dear Kai,
For every t≥0e−tL is a linear map from C(X) to C(X).
Then for every t≥0 there exists a unique matrix qt:X×X→[0,∞) such that e−tLf(x)=∑y∈Xqt(x,y)f(y) for every f∈C(X) and every x∈X. The matrix has nonnegative entries because the semigroup of the Laplacian is positivity preserving:qt(x,z)=∑y∈Xqt(x,y)1z(y)=e−tL1z(x)≥0 for all x,z∈X.
The heat kernel is p:[0,∞)×X×X→[0,∞),(t,x,y)↦qt(x,y)m(y).
Best, Brian
Brian Voß, 2022/11/01 14:57, 2022/11/01 22:41
Dear all,
In the proof of (i)⇒(ii) in Prop. 1.24 you need to know that the Laplacian Lb,c,m has only non-negative Eigenvalues to apply the Laplace transform.
If λ<0, then Lb,c,m−λI=Lb,c−λ,m is bijective by Lemma 1.30 because c−λ>0. Thus λ is no Eigenvalue of Lb,c,m.
Alternatively you could apply the maximum principle to see this.
Best, Brian
Sascha Trostorff, 2022/10/30 17:38
Dear ISEM-Team,
I wonder why you prove Lemma 1.30, since this is an immediate consequence of Exercise 1.3.
Best regards
Sascha
Christian Seifert, 2022/11/01 08:59
Dear Sascha,
Well, you are absolutely right.
Best,
Christian
Anna Muranova, 2022/10/29 20:21, 2022/10/29 20:47
Dear all,
I have a couple of small questions:
1. Why in Proposition 1.24 (i) the positivity for one t is equal to positivity for all?
2. Concerning Definition 1.28 (Heat kernel), I am afraid I don't quite understand it. Is pt(x,y) unique? Why it exists? Do I understamd correctly, that it follows from linear algebra? Why e−tL is bijective?
Best,
Anna
Jochen Glück, 2022/10/30 13:08
Dear Anna,
Here is an answer to your first question:
The point here is that the the semigroup is already known to be positivity preserving (see Theorem 1.20). So the precise order of the argument in the proof of Propositionj 1.24 is as follows:
If (i) holds for one t, than it follows from the positivity preserving property of the semigroup, together with the continuity of the semigroup and the Laplace transform formula for the resolvent, that (ii) holds for every α.
If (ii) holds for every α, then it clearly holds for at least one α.
If (ii) holds for at least one α, the argument given in the prove shows that (iii) holds.
If (iii) holds, then the argument given in the proof shows that (i) holds for all t.
If (i) holds for all t, then it obviously holds for at least one t.
Regarding the second part of your second question: The bijectivity of e−tL follows from e−tLetL=e0⋅L=id.
I'm not sure if I understand the second question correctly but in the proof of Theorem 1.29(a) there is an explicit expression for p:[0,∞)×X×X→[0,∞) given by
pt(x,y)=e−tL1y(x)/m(y)
for t≥0 and x,y∈X. In fact, if you see e−tL as a |X|×|X|-matrix, you immediately arrive at this expression by simple matrix multiplication. This also implies the uniqueness of the heat kernel in this setup (since it is determined by the semigroup).
Best wishes,
Patrizio
Anna Muranova, 2022/11/04 17:26
Dear Patrizio,
thank you! Yeah, my question was just to be sure that it is so simple).
Best,
Anna
Marcus Waurick, 2022/10/28 11:42, 2022/10/28 15:06
Dear all,
thank you very much for lecture number 2.
Some minor points:
p18, middle: The if-clause after `desired equivalence' seems to be a bit awkward (at least to me). The word `satisfies' suggests that u0=1 is a consequence of (i). One rather chooses u to be given by ut:=e−tL1. Then, by (i), the derivative ∂tut is non-negative.
p18, middle (personal taste) Even though, I think I know what `non-increasing' means I feel way more comfortable saying `decreasing' (and understanding that this also allows for equality signs)
p18, middle: I find `the inequality above' not specific enough. More so as (at least I think this is the argument) one uses positivity preserving for the first and the second inequality and only the third is derived from the inequality above. I would rather argue that positivity preserving implies
0≤e−tLf≤e−tL1,
and from e−tL1≤1, it follows that the semi-group satisfies (iii).
p18, second to last line of this proof, I think there is a 1 missing in the limit expression.
p19, -4: For L1=0 it might make sense to refer to Lemma 1.6 again.
p20, Proposition 1.24: I would have wished for a clearer argument why 'one' can be replaced by 'all'. The obvious argument for (i) and (ii) using the semi-group property and the resolvent identity (in addition to positivity) allows me to deduce the same only for eventually all large t and α, respectively.
p20, middle: I think the term `U is (or is not) connected to X∖U' is not defined in the lecture notes. One should rather write “As there is no path from any x∈U to any y∈X∖U, the operator …” (or something similar).
p26,just above Claim 2: For me it was helpful to remind myself that y not belonging to B means it belongs to A. Then, as b(xj−1,y)>0 by definition of path, {x0,…,xj=y} is a connected subset of A and since {x0,…,xj−1}⊆Z it follows that xj∈Z by the connectedness of Z.
Cheers,
Marcus
Christian Seifert, 2022/11/01 08:52
Dear Marcus,
Many thanks. We will take into account the comments for a final version (as usual).
Best,
Christian
Anna Muranova, 2022/10/27 19:42
Dear Lecturers,
thank you for the second lecture!
I am wodering, what would be the object corressponding to the positivity preserving semigroup (and all equivalent conditions e.g. Q(|f|)≤Q(f)), i.e. analogue of the Theorem 1.20 for the first Beurling–Deny criterion? Is it also some kind of weighted graph, which is simply not discussed here?
Christian Seifert, 2022/11/01 08:29
Dear Anna,
The first Beurling–Deny criterion would give us that the off-diagonal matrix elements are non-positive. Inspecting Lemma 1.6 (and its proof), we would see that the c could then take negative values as well. We do not consider such situations here.
Best,
Christian
Jochen Glück, 2022/10/27 00:57, 2022/10/27 08:46
Dear all,
Thanks a lot to the virtual lecturers for the very interesting lecture!
Here are a few comments:
(1) Proving the implication “(i) ⇒ (iii)” in Theorem 1.18 by means of the Lie-Trotter product formula is (at least in the finite-dimensional case) more complicated than necessary; here's a very simple argument: since all off-diagonal entries of −L are ≥0, there exists a number c≥0 such that −L+cI≥0 (where I denotes the identity matrix). Hence, e−tL=e−tcet(−L+cI)≥0, where the inequality in the end follows from the series representation of the matrix exponential function.
(2) The first part of the proof of Theorem 1.26 consist of showing that, if u is an eigenvector for λ0, then so is |u|. The argument involves a preliminary claim about the form Q, which in turn relies on the spectral theorem. Here's a simple alternative argument that works for every positivity-improving semigroup (e−tL)t≥0 in finite dimensions (without appealing to forms or self-adjointness):
We may assume that λ0=0. Then, for all t>0, one has |u|=|e−tLu|≤e−tL|u|. Assume for a contradiction that, for some t>0, the inequality |u|≤e−tL|u| is not an equality. By the positivity improving property one thus gets |u|≤e−tL|u|<e−2tL|u|, so (1+ε)|u|≤e−2tL|u| for some ε>0. So the spectral radius of e−2tL is at least 1+ε, which is a contradiction since the smallest spectral value of L is 0.
(3) I was wondering why the property “0≤f≤1⇒0≤e−tLf≤1” is called Markov property, since from a probabilistic point of view it rather looks like a sub-Markov property (as some mass might get lost).
(4) Historical-terminological nitpick: It seems a bit unconventional to call Theorem 1.26 a Perron-Frobenius theorem, as the result considers the positivity improving case only; this makes it a “Perron theorem” rather than a “Perron-Frobenius theorem” (historically, Perron first analyzed the spectrum of positivity improving matrices, and Frobenius later adapted the result to the case of positivity preserving matrices - thus, theorems for the positivity improving case are typically associated with the name Perron only; compare for instance this nice survey article).
Best wishes, Jochen
Jonathan Mui, 2022/10/31 12:41
Hi Jochen,
Thanks for these nice observations! Regarding (3), I note that in Davies' classic book on heat kernels, he also does not require the property e−tL1=1 in the definition of Markov semigroup.
Kind regards,
Jonathan
Jochen Glück, 2022/10/31 12:56
Hi Jonathan,
Thanks for your reply!
It's an interesting observation that Davies also uses the notion “Markov” in the same way; I didn't remember that. (Although I still wonder about the motivation for this usage of the terminology.)
Best regards, Jochen
Christian Seifert, 2022/11/01 08:23
Dear Jochen and Jonathan,
Many thanks for the comments.
Indeed, there are various ways to prove Theorem 1.18.
Concerning the notion of “Markov semigroups”, from the probabilistic point of view, one would obtain a sub-markovian process. However, the terminology is well-established, see the mentioned book of Davies, but also the book of Fukushima et al on Dirichlet forms.
In the literature on Dirichlet forms and Markov processes the terms 'Markov property' (for the semigroup), 'sub-Markovian semigroup' and 'Markovian semigroup' all mean the same thing.
The property e−tL1=1 plays a special role and is known as 'conservativeness' or 'stochastic completeness' of the semigroup. For infinite graphs this will be discussed in a later lecture.
More generally, if L is induced by a Dirichlet form (plus some regularity assumptions on the underlying space and L), the sub-Markovian semigroup (e−tL) gives rise to a Markov process that is related to the semigroup via a Feynman-Kac formula. If the semigroup is conservative, then the process has infinite liftime, and if it is not conservative, then it has finite lifetime. In the latter case the lifetime is given by a random variable ζ and the induced Markov process (Xt) is only defined on the random time intervall [0,ζ). More precisely for each ω in the probability space we have
X⋅(ω):[0,ζ(ω))→underlying space.
In this case the Feynman-Kac formula reads
e−tLf(x)=Ex[f(Xt)1{t<ζ}].
It is convenient to add a point ∂ to the underlying space (the so-called cemetery) and extend the process to ∂ by letting Xt=∂ for t≥ζ. The resulting process will be a Markov process on the enlarged underlying space. With this interpretation we have
stochastic completeness = infinite lifetime = the process does not leave the underlying space (does not reach the cemetery) in finite time,
which explains the name of this property. For details, see e.g. the book of Fukushima et al on Dirichlet forms.
@Christian: I have not heard of a sub-Markovian process before. What do you mean by this?
Best, Marcel
Jochen Glück, 2022/11/03 19:37
Dear Marcel, dear Christian,
Thanks a lot for your replies!
I thought about it for a while, and I think I finally understood where my confusion came from. It seems that the notion “Markov” is used from two quite different perspectives in different communities:
From a probabilistic point of view, one needs to distinguish stochastic processes without memory from more general stochastic processes, and the notion “Markov” is used to make this distinction. Whether the process dies or lives for ever is not important for this kind of distinction. This explains the usage of the notion “Markov semigroup” in the theory of Dirichlet forms, as described in your posts.
In the theory of positive operators on Banach lattices, the terminilogy developed quite differently: there, the notions “Markov” and “stochastic” are often used to describe situations where probability densities are mapped to probability densities, while the notions “sub-Markov” and “sub-stochastic” are used to describe operators that map probability densities to functions with integral less than 1.
Best, Jochen
Fatou TINE, 2022/10/26 12:50
Hello
Thank you for the course
Christian Seifert, 2022/10/26 13:28
You are welcome
Reagan Kasonsa Tshiangomba, 2022/10/26 19:39
After defining a Markov property of a semigroup then its state that whenever f≥0 is given then sf with a suitable s>0 will satisfy 0′leqsf′leq1. My question is about the suitability of s, because for s large enough we can find x′inX such that sf(x)′geq0 so by suitable you mean only for such s satisfying 0′leqsf(x)≤1,∀x∈X
Christian Seifert, 2022/11/01 08:57
Dear Reagan,
Well, note that X is finite, so every f∈C(X) is bounded. Take f∈C(X) with f≥0. Then, unless f≠0, with s:=1maxx∈Xf(x) we obtain sf≤1.
Best,
Christian
discussion/lecture02.txt · Last modified: 2022/10/25 15:14 by matcs
Discussion on Lecture 02
Dear all,
We can be more ambitious with the beautiful and surprising Bonus Exercise 1 (Effective resistance II).
Once we prove that ρ:(x,y)↦Weff(x,y) is a distance. We can prove that ρα:(x,y)↦Wαeff(x,y) is a distance for all α∈(0,1].
For this, we need these typical exercises in Functional Analysis Courses:
1. For α∈(0,1] and x,y≥0 the function φ:x↦xα is not decreasing and (x+y)α≤xα+yα.
2. If d is a metric, then (ϕ∘d) is also a metric provided that ϕ is a non-decreasing mapping such that ϕ(s+r)≤ϕ(s)+ϕ(r).
Best Regards,
Paco
Dear Paco,
Many thanks for the remark.
Best, Christian
Hello,
Regarding exercise 2a) a question came up. Is “finite measure space” a typo for “finite measure set space” or are we talking about a possibly infinite set X?
Regards Ragon
Dear Ragon,
this is a typo. It should read ‚…finite set measure space…‘. Infinite sets are considered from Lecture 3 onward.
Best regards, Marcel
Dear all,
is the graph in Exercise 2.4 assumed to be connected? Otherwise, I won't see, why Weff(x,y)<∞ for x,y∈X. Indeed, if we for instance assume that X consists of two elements and b=0, then Q(h)=0 for each h∈C(X) and hence, Weff(x,y)=∞ for the two distinct points in X.
Best regards Sascha
Dear Sascha,
yes you have to assume connectedness of the graph. Otherwise Weff(x,y)=∞ whenever x and y belong to different connected components. To see this you can take h=1C, where C is the connected component of x. Then Q(h)=0 and if y is not in the connected component of x, then h(x)−h(y)=1.
In spirit the statements remain true also in the unconnected setting. The formula in (a) holds always if max is replaced by sup and W1/2eff is non-degenerate, symmetric and satisfies the triangle inequality but may take the value ∞.
Best, Marcel
Hello, Thank you very much for this scond lecture.
Dear all,
I do not really understand the definition of the heat kernel (1.28). How does the definition e−tLf(x) fit to the map p:[0,∞)×X×X→[0,∞)? e−tLf(x) looks to me like a map with domain [0,∞)×C(X)×X instead of [0,∞)×X×X What am I missing? Furthermore, how is pt defined?
Best, Kai
Dear Kai,
For every t≥0 e−tL is a linear map from C(X) to C(X). Then for every t≥0 there exists a unique matrix qt:X×X→[0,∞) such that e−tLf(x)=∑y∈Xqt(x,y)f(y) for every f∈C(X) and every x∈X. The matrix has nonnegative entries because the semigroup of the Laplacian is positivity preserving:qt(x,z)=∑y∈Xqt(x,y)1z(y)=e−tL1z(x)≥0 for all x,z∈X. The heat kernel is p:[0,∞)×X×X→[0,∞),(t,x,y)↦qt(x,y)m(y).
Best, Brian
Dear all,
In the proof of (i)⇒(ii) in Prop. 1.24 you need to know that the Laplacian Lb,c,m has only non-negative Eigenvalues to apply the Laplace transform. If λ<0, then Lb,c,m−λI=Lb,c−λ,m is bijective by Lemma 1.30 because c−λ>0. Thus λ is no Eigenvalue of Lb,c,m. Alternatively you could apply the maximum principle to see this.
Best, Brian
Dear ISEM-Team,
I wonder why you prove Lemma 1.30, since this is an immediate consequence of Exercise 1.3.
Best regards
Sascha
Dear Sascha,
Well, you are absolutely right.
Best, Christian
Dear all,
I have a couple of small questions:
1. Why in Proposition 1.24 (i) the positivity for one t is equal to positivity for all?
2. Concerning Definition 1.28 (Heat kernel), I am afraid I don't quite understand it. Is pt(x,y) unique? Why it exists? Do I understamd correctly, that it follows from linear algebra? Why e−tL is bijective?
Best, Anna
Dear Anna,
Here is an answer to your first question:
The point here is that the the semigroup is already known to be positivity preserving (see Theorem 1.20). So the precise order of the argument in the proof of Propositionj 1.24 is as follows:
Regarding the second part of your second question: The bijectivity of e−tL follows from e−tLetL=e0⋅L=id.
Best regards, Jochen
Dear Jochen,
thank you for the detailed answer! Now I got it.
Best, Anna
Dear Anna, dear Jochen,
I'm not sure if I understand the second question correctly but in the proof of Theorem 1.29(a) there is an explicit expression for p:[0,∞)×X×X→[0,∞) given by pt(x,y)=e−tL1y(x)/m(y) for t≥0 and x,y∈X. In fact, if you see e−tL as a |X|×|X|-matrix, you immediately arrive at this expression by simple matrix multiplication. This also implies the uniqueness of the heat kernel in this setup (since it is determined by the semigroup).
Best wishes, Patrizio
Dear Patrizio,
thank you! Yeah, my question was just to be sure that it is so simple).
Best, Anna
Dear all,
thank you very much for lecture number 2.
Some minor points:
0≤e−tLf≤e−tL1, and from e−tL1≤1, it follows that the semi-group satisfies (iii).
Cheers,
Marcus
Dear Marcus,
Many thanks. We will take into account the comments for a final version (as usual).
Best, Christian
Dear Lecturers,
thank you for the second lecture!
I am wodering, what would be the object corressponding to the positivity preserving semigroup (and all equivalent conditions e.g. Q(|f|)≤Q(f)), i.e. analogue of the Theorem 1.20 for the first Beurling–Deny criterion? Is it also some kind of weighted graph, which is simply not discussed here?
Dear Anna,
The first Beurling–Deny criterion would give us that the off-diagonal matrix elements are non-positive. Inspecting Lemma 1.6 (and its proof), we would see that the c could then take negative values as well. We do not consider such situations here.
Best, Christian
Dear all,
Thanks a lot to the virtual lecturers for the very interesting lecture!
Here are a few comments:
(1) Proving the implication “(i) ⇒ (iii)” in Theorem 1.18 by means of the Lie-Trotter product formula is (at least in the finite-dimensional case) more complicated than necessary; here's a very simple argument: since all off-diagonal entries of −L are ≥0, there exists a number c≥0 such that −L+cI≥0 (where I denotes the identity matrix). Hence, e−tL=e−tcet(−L+cI)≥0, where the inequality in the end follows from the series representation of the matrix exponential function.
(2) The first part of the proof of Theorem 1.26 consist of showing that, if u is an eigenvector for λ0, then so is |u|. The argument involves a preliminary claim about the form Q, which in turn relies on the spectral theorem. Here's a simple alternative argument that works for every positivity-improving semigroup (e−tL)t≥0 in finite dimensions (without appealing to forms or self-adjointness):
We may assume that λ0=0. Then, for all t>0, one has |u|=|e−tLu|≤e−tL|u|. Assume for a contradiction that, for some t>0, the inequality |u|≤e−tL|u| is not an equality. By the positivity improving property one thus gets |u|≤e−tL|u|<e−2tL|u|, so (1+ε)|u|≤e−2tL|u| for some ε>0. So the spectral radius of e−2tL is at least 1+ε, which is a contradiction since the smallest spectral value of L is 0.
(3) I was wondering why the property “0≤f≤1⇒0≤e−tLf≤1” is called Markov property, since from a probabilistic point of view it rather looks like a sub-Markov property (as some mass might get lost).
(4) Historical-terminological nitpick: It seems a bit unconventional to call Theorem 1.26 a Perron-Frobenius theorem, as the result considers the positivity improving case only; this makes it a “Perron theorem” rather than a “Perron-Frobenius theorem” (historically, Perron first analyzed the spectrum of positivity improving matrices, and Frobenius later adapted the result to the case of positivity preserving matrices - thus, theorems for the positivity improving case are typically associated with the name Perron only; compare for instance this nice survey article).
Best wishes, Jochen
Hi Jochen,
Thanks for these nice observations! Regarding (3), I note that in Davies' classic book on heat kernels, he also does not require the property e−tL1=1 in the definition of Markov semigroup.
Kind regards, Jonathan
Hi Jonathan,
Thanks for your reply!
It's an interesting observation that Davies also uses the notion “Markov” in the same way; I didn't remember that. (Although I still wonder about the motivation for this usage of the terminology.)
Best regards, Jochen
Dear Jochen and Jonathan,
Many thanks for the comments.
Indeed, there are various ways to prove Theorem 1.18.
Concerning the notion of “Markov semigroups”, from the probabilistic point of view, one would obtain a sub-markovian process. However, the terminology is well-established, see the mentioned book of Davies, but also the book of Fukushima et al on Dirichlet forms.
Best, Christian
Dear all,
I want to add a bit to Christian's answer.
In the literature on Dirichlet forms and Markov processes the terms 'Markov property' (for the semigroup), 'sub-Markovian semigroup' and 'Markovian semigroup' all mean the same thing.
The property e−tL1=1 plays a special role and is known as 'conservativeness' or 'stochastic completeness' of the semigroup. For infinite graphs this will be discussed in a later lecture.
More generally, if L is induced by a Dirichlet form (plus some regularity assumptions on the underlying space and L), the sub-Markovian semigroup (e−tL) gives rise to a Markov process that is related to the semigroup via a Feynman-Kac formula. If the semigroup is conservative, then the process has infinite liftime, and if it is not conservative, then it has finite lifetime. In the latter case the lifetime is given by a random variable ζ and the induced Markov process (Xt) is only defined on the random time intervall [0,ζ). More precisely for each ω in the probability space we have
X⋅(ω):[0,ζ(ω))→underlying space.
In this case the Feynman-Kac formula reads
e−tLf(x)=Ex[f(Xt)1{t<ζ}].
It is convenient to add a point ∂ to the underlying space (the so-called cemetery) and extend the process to ∂ by letting Xt=∂ for t≥ζ. The resulting process will be a Markov process on the enlarged underlying space. With this interpretation we have
stochastic completeness = infinite lifetime = the process does not leave the underlying space (does not reach the cemetery) in finite time,
which explains the name of this property. For details, see e.g. the book of Fukushima et al on Dirichlet forms.
@Christian: I have not heard of a sub-Markovian process before. What do you mean by this?
Best, Marcel
Dear Marcel, dear Christian,
Thanks a lot for your replies!
I thought about it for a while, and I think I finally understood where my confusion came from. It seems that the notion “Markov” is used from two quite different perspectives in different communities:
Best, Jochen
Hello Thank you for the course
You are welcome
After defining a Markov property of a semigroup then its state that whenever f≥0 is given then sf with a suitable s>0 will satisfy 0′leqsf′leq1. My question is about the suitability of s, because for s large enough we can find x′inX such that sf(x)′geq0 so by suitable you mean only for such s satisfying 0′leqsf(x)≤1,∀x∈X
Dear Reagan,
Well, note that X is finite, so every f∈C(X) is bounded. Take f∈C(X) with f≥0. Then, unless f≠0, with s:=1maxx∈Xf(x) we obtain sf≤1.
Best, Christian